Is Christ the Son Of God?

For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if [it were] possible, they shall deceive the very elect. Behold, I have told you before. (Matthew 24:24-25)

The gospel of Matthew was written circa 70-100 A.D. and some scholars have even put it as early as 63A.D. Some 700 years after the cruxifiction and resurrection of Christ, this warning was forgotten to wit, a new revelation was conceived and the dawn of the 'perfected religion'. If one believes in the words of Christ, it stands to reason that after his ascension, no one can claim to be a messenger of God, much less declare the be the final messenger.

The irreconcilable differences regarding the deity of Jesus Christ will always be the divide. God is one. No one is disputing that, but the rejection of the Trinity which can be illustrated like this:-

GOD = The Father = Jesus Christ = Holy Spirit

Here is a short article I reproduce from the internet:-

The phrase “only begotten Son” occurs in John 3:16 which reads in the King James Version as, "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have everlasting life." The phrase "only begotten" translates the Greek word monogenes. This word is variously translated into English as "only," "one and only," and "only begotten." It's this last phrase ("only begotten" used in the KJV, NASB and the NKJV) that causes problems.

False teachers [and prophets] have latched onto this phrase to try to prove their false teaching that Jesus Christ isn't God; i.e., that Jesus isn't equal in essence to God as the Second Person of the Trinity. They see the word "begotten" and say that Jesus is a created being because only someone who had a beginning in time can be "begotten." What this fails to note is that "begotten" is an English translation of a Greek word. As such, we have to look at the original meaning of the Greek word, not transfer English meanings into the text. So what does monogenes mean? According to the Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (BAGD, 3rd Edition), monogenes has two primary definitions.

The first definition is "pertaining to being the only one of its kind within a specific relationship." This is the meaning attached to its use in Hebrews 11:17 when the writer refers to Isaac as Abraham's "only begotten son." Abraham had more than one son, but Isaac was the only son he had by Sarah and the only son of the covenant.

The second definition is "pertaining to being the only one of its kind or class, unique in kind." This is the meaning that is implied in John 3:16. In fact, John is the only New Testament writer who uses this word in reference to Jesus (see John 1:14, 18, 3:16, 1 John 4:9). John was primarily concerned with demonstrating that Jesus was the Son of God (John 20:31), and he uses this word to highlight Jesus as uniquely God's Son—sharing the same divine nature as God—as opposed to believers who are God's sons and daughters through faith.

The bottom line is that terms such as "Father" and "Son," that are descriptive of God and Jesus, are human terms used to help us understand the relationship between the different Persons of the Trinity. If you can understand the relationship between a human father and a human son, then you can understand, in part, the relationship between the First and Second Persons of the Trinity.

[Emphasis mine]

1) Definitely not physical but spiritual

"Son of God" is a term of honour in the Holy Bible. King David, Hazrat Daoud, and King Solomon, Hazrat Suliman, are each specifically referred to as a "son" of God in the Holy Bible (Psalms 2 and 1 Chronicles 17:13).

It is clear to see that "son" meant one who was loved, chosen and given authority and power through the Spirit of God. "Spirit" here does not refer to an angel or even the breath of God, but the very being, nature and essence of God.

Jesus was not just a grown human being upon whom the Spirit of God came. He was the very nature and essence of God who came in human flesh (John 1:1,14, Micah 5:2, Luke 1:35, John 4:24, Philippians 2:5-8)

2) Comparing an apple and an orange.

The Bible does not refers to Christ as a physical son of God and it is clear that the other book is not addressing what the scriptures are saying.

3) Why didn't Jesus ever say clearly, "I am God. Worship Me!"?

Christ did say it in, among others:

John 6:41 -42:

The Jews then murmured at him, because he said, I am the bread which came down from heaven.

John 8:58:

Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I
am.

John 17:4-5:

I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest
me to do. And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory
which I had with thee before the world was.

4) He was there before the world was and who is 'He'? God of course. Christ is God humbling himself to take the form of man and die for our sins.

Philippians 2:5-11:

Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the
form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant,
and was made in the likeness of men:
And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became
obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is
above every name:
That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of [things] in heaven, and
[things] in earth, and [things] under the earth;
And [that] every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ [is] Lord, to the
glory of God the Father.

It is a message of humility, of obedience and instructions to mirror that which of God's quality. He chose to take the likeness of man.

When Christ cried out " Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani," meaning, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:45-50), those who corrupts the gospel message has taken it more evidence that Christ is not the son of God. Whereas, they fail to realise that Christ quoted the beginning of Psalm 22:1 , "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?". Jesus quoted this Psalm in order to draw attention to it and the fact that He was fulfilling it there on the cross. Consider verses 11-18:

Be not far from me, for trouble is near; For there is none to help.12 Many bulls have surrounded me; Strong bulls of Bashan have encircled me. 13 They open wide their mouth at me, As a ravening and a roaring lion. 14 I am poured out like water, And all my bones are out of joint; My heart is like wax; It is melted within me. 15 My strength is dried up like a potsherd, And my tongue cleaves to my jaws; And Thou dost lay me in the dust of death. 16 For dogs have surrounded me; A band of evildoers has encompassed me; They pierced my hands and my feet. 17 I can count all my bones. They look, they stare at me; 18 They divide my garments among them, And for my clothing they cast lots.

When He said, "It is finished" it refers ONLY to the old sacrificial system and nothing else, also, the rending of the Temple Veil (that separates the Holy Place from the Most Holy Place) reinforced this unselfish act of our living God. God meant the process for which he died for everyone's sins so that believers could spend eternity with Him in heaven.